General Otolaryngology Questions

July 12, 2023

Question: A 9-year-old boy is brought in to the clinic by his mother with a sore throat for the past 3 days. He has a fever and has not been able to eat due to the pain, though he is able to tolerate liquids. His mother denies cough, hoarseness, rashes, or other related symptoms. He is allergic to penicillin. He is febrile to 101.6ºF. Vital signs are otherwise stable. Physical examination of the mouth reveals swollen tonsils covered in exudate bilaterally and neck tenderness upon palpation. Otologic exam is normal and auscultation of the chest is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

 

A. Urgent admission to hospital

B. Amoxicillin for 10 days

C. Obtain rapid strep test

D. CT of head and neck

E. Metronidazole for 7 days

  • Correct Answer: C

    Explanation: The Centor criteria may be used to identify cases of tonsillitis more likely to be bacterial: 3-14 years old (+1), tonsillar exudate (+1), history of fever > 100.4ºF (+1), and absent cough (+1). Scores ≥ 2 warrant rapid strep test and/or throat culture. In select patients with scores ≥ 4, empiric antibiotic therapy may be considered; however, 2012 IDSA guidelines do not recommend empiric antibiotic therapy without confirmatory testing. Hospital admission is unnecessary unless the patient experiences worsening symptoms, such as stridor or inability to tolerate fluids as well as solids. If antibiotics are indicated, phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days is the treatment of choice, unless the patient has a penicillin allergy.

    References:

    Shulman ST, Bisno AL, Clegg HW, et al. Clinical Practice Guideline for the Diagnosis and Management of Group A Streptococcal Pharyngitis: 2012 Update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical Infectious Diseases. 2012; 55(10): p.e86–e102. doi: 10.1093/cid/cis629.

June 14, 2023

A 62-year-old man with a history of HIV/AIDS presents to the clinic with a lesion on his tongue, as shown below. Of the following, what is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A.  Acyclovir

B.  Nystatin

C.  Penicillin

D.  Griseofulvin

E.  Terbinafine


  • Correct Answer: B

    Explanation: The thick white patches on this patient’s oral mucosa are suggestive of oral thrush (oropharyngeal candidiasis), a localized infection with Candida fungi. It is associated with immunosuppression and frequently occurs in patients with HIV infection, diabetes mellitus, and history of cancer. In immunocompetent patients, localized oropharyngeal candidiasis is managed with topical antifungals, such as nystatin “swish and swallow” or oral fluconazole.  Acyclovir (A) is an antiviral agent effective against herpes simplex virus and varicella zoster virus. Penicillin (C) is an beta-lactam antibiotic used to treat bacterial—not fungal—infections. Griseofulvin (D) and Terbinafine (E) are used for dermatophytoses, not candidiasis.

    Image Credit: Photograph from David H. Spach, MD https://www.hiv.uw.edu/go/basic-primary-care/oral-manifestations/core-concept/all

    References: 

    Patton LL, Bonito AJ, Shugars DA. A systematic review of the effectiveness of antifungal drugs for the prevention and treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in HIV-positive patients. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol Endod. 2001;92(2):170-179. doi:10.1067/moe.2001.116600

May 10th, 2023

A 16 month-old-girl is brought to the clinic because her parents noticed her constantly tugging on her ears. She presented to the ER 2 weeks ago with fever and irritability. She was found to have acute otitis media of the right ear and was prescribed amoxicillin. Though her symptoms and fever have resolved, she continues to rub her ears. Otoscopic exam of the right ear is shown below. Pneumatic insufflation demonstrates reduced mobility of tympanic membranes bilaterally. The external canals are clear. What is the best next step in management?

A.  Oral Antibiotics

B.  Intranasal Decongestant 

C.  Tympanostomy tube placement

D.  Observe and follow up


  • Correct Answer: D

    Explanation: This patient’s otoscopic exam shows gray-colored fluid and air-fluid level (arrow) behind the tympanic membrane, suggestive of otitis media with effusion (OME). Also called serous otitis media, OME is a spontaneously resolving condition, and watchful observation is the preferred strategy except for children with hearing impairment, developmental delay, or specific conditions in whom OME is often persistent and needs to be addressed. Tympanostomy tubes may be indicated for children with OME for >3 months (chronic OME) and symptoms that are likely attributable to OME. Antihistamines, antibiotics, and decongestants are ineffective for OME and are not recommended for treatment.

    References:

    Rosenfeld RM, Culpepper L, Doyle KJ, Grundfast KM, Hoberman A, Kenna MA, Lieberthal AS, Mahoney M, Wahl RA, Woods CR Jr, Yawn B; American Academy of Pediatrics Subcommittee on Otitis Media with Effusion; American Academy of Family Physicians; American Academy of Otolaryngology--Head and Neck Surgery. Clinical practice guideline: Otitis media with effusion. Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg. 2004 May;130(5 Suppl):S95-118. doi: 10.1016/j.otohns.2004.02.002. PMID: 15138413. [Article Link]


April 26, 2023

A 49-year-old female patient presents at the clinic seeking further management of symptoms related to Ménière's disease in her left ear. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with the disease after experiencing weekly vertigo attacks that lasted 2-3 hours, accompanied by aural fullness. At the time, her audiogram showed mild low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear but no deficits in the right ear. She was advised on dietary (sodium restriction and caffeine and alcohol reduction/elimination) and lifestyle changes (stress reduction) and given 0.5 mg lorazepam for acute attacks. The frequency of her attacks has since been reduced to once every two months, but she desires to know if more can be done to prevent attacks. Her recent audiogram shows a moderate low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear with no deficits in the right ear. What is the next appropriate treatment option for this patient?

A.  Surgical labyrinthectomy

B.  Diuretic

C.  Intratympanic gentamicin

D.  Endolymphatic sac surgery

E.  Cochlear Implant

  • Correct Answer: B (Diuretic)

    Explanation: Ménière's disease is a chronic condition that currently has no cure, and its treatment aims to reduce the severity and frequency of vertigo attacks and improve the patient's quality of life. The approach to treatment involves a step-by-step escalation of therapies until the patient achieves sufficient symptom management. The initial therapy involves dietary and lifestyle modifications such as sodium restriction, caffeine and alcohol reduction, and stress reduction. Oral pharmacological therapy should include diuretics, typically thiazides, with or without potassium-sparing diuretics. These medications work by altering the electrolyte balance in the endolymph and reducing its volume, thereby decreasing the severity and frequency of vertigo attacks. Betahistine is another pharmacological option, commonly used as maintenance therapy in Europe. However, its use is limited in the United States due to limited evidence supporting its effectiveness. If lifestyle and oral pharmacological therapies are insufficient, intratympanic medications such as corticosteroids and/or gentamicin can be offered. It is important to note that gentamicin carries the risk of hearing loss when injected. If the above treatment options are not effective, surgical interventions such as endolymphatic sac decompression or shunt surgery, vestibular neurectomy, or surgical labyrinthectomy may be considered. This patient does not meet the criteria for a cochlear implant and instead could be offered a hearing aid to improve their hearing.

    References:

    Basura, G. J., Adams, M. E., Monfared, A., Schwartz, S. R., Antonelli, P. J., Burkard, R., ... & Buchanan, E. M. (2020). Clinical practice guideline: Ménière’s disease. Otolaryngology–Head and Neck Surgery, 162, S1-S55.

    Hoskin, J. L. (2022). Ménière's disease: new guidelines, subtypes, imaging, and more. Current Opinion in Neurology, 35(1), 90-97.

March 8th, 2023

A 40-year-old woman presents to the office due to nasal congestion and runny nose. She states she had similar symptoms 2 months ago, but at that time, she had a cough, fatigue, and fever. Since then, she has been using over-the-counter acetaminophen and another medication whose name she can’t recall. She reports her fever subsided and symptoms improved, but her nasal congestion has gotten worse despite continued medication use. Nasal examination reveals swollen, red nasal mucous membranes; otolaryngologic exam is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most likely medication she has been using?

A. Oral antihistamine
B. Nasal decongestant spray
C. Nasal steroid spray
D. Topical bronchodilators
E. This is allergic rhinitis and unrelated to medication use

  • Correct Answer: B (nasal decongestant spray)

    Explanation:
    History of nasal congestion following prolonged use of medication combined with erythematous nasal mucosa is suggestive of rhinitis medicamentosa, a condition of rebound nasal congestion following extended use of nasal decongestant sprays (oxymetazoline, phenylephrine, e.g.). These over-the-counter decongestant sprays lead to rapid relief of nasal congestion by causing vasoconstriction. Many days of regular use leads to rebound nasal congestion as the medication wears off, prompting patients to administer the medicine more frequently to obtain relief. This can lead to a vicious cycle, both caused and relieved by the medication, with escalating use. While antihistamines (A) cause drying of the mucosa, they do not cause rebound congestion. Nasal steroids (C) and bronchodilators (D) also do not cause rebound congestion. There is evidence steroids make rebound congestion less likely to occur when coadministered with the nasal decongestant. Allergic rhinitis (E) is more likely associated with sneezing and itching symptoms, and physical exam would show edematous, pale nasal mucosa, rather than the ‘beefy red’ mucosa classically associated with rhinitis medicamentosa.

    References:
    Vaidyanathan S, Williamson P, Clearie K, Khan F, Lipworth B. Fluticasone reverses oxymetazoline-induced tachyphylaxis of response and rebound congestion. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2010 Jul 1;182(1):19-24. doi: 10.1164/rccm.200911-1701OC. Epub 2010 Mar 4. PMID: 20203244.

    https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/20203244/

February 25th, 2022

An otherwise healthy 10-month-old infant is scheduled to undergo cleft palate repair. As the resident, you understand that a rare but potential complication of the procedure is eustachian tube dysfunction from injury to the tensor veli palatini muscle. This muscle is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?

A. X
B. VII
C. IX
D. V2
E. V3

February 11th, 2022

A 38-year-old female presents to the Otolaryngology clinic with a case of idiopathic facial nerve paralysis. On a physical exam, forehead motion is weak but discernible. Uncontrollable muscle spasms are visible when the patient tries to move her facial muscles. The patient’s eyes do not close completely. What grade of facial paralysis is this patient presenting with?

A. House-Brackmann Grade II
B. House-Brackmann Grade III
C. House-Brackmann Grade IV
D. House-Brackmann Grade V
E. House-Brackmann Grade VI

October 25th, 2022

A 32-year-old female presents to your office complaining of trouble sleeping and unintentional weight loss. She also reports feeling “anxious all the time” and having palpitations over the past few weeks. On your physical exam, you note mild tremor, moist skin, lagophthalmos, and scleral show. Which of the following medication combinations would be best to initiate for this patient?


A.Metoprolol and levothyroxine
B.Phentolamine and liothyronine
C.Phenoxybenzamine and propylthiouracil
D.Propanolol and methimazole
E.Prednisone and Lugol's solution  

  • Quiz Answer: D

    This patient is presenting with clinical findings most consistent with hyperthyroidism or Grave’s disease. Her weight loss, anxiety, and palpitations are likely due to adrenergic stimulation. Propranolol is the most effective beta-blocker for controlling these symptoms. In order to control her overactive thyroid, antithyroid medications, like methimazole or propylthiouracil, act by inhibiting TPO and thereby blocking the production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland.

    A, B. Levothyroxine and liothyronine (shorter half-life) are thyroid replacement medications that would be most appropriate for patients who are hypothyroid.

    C. Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha blocker commonly used to treat episodes of high blood pressure and sweating related to pheochromocytoma.

    E. Glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisone) are useful for decreasing peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. While lugol’s solution (i.e. super-saturated potassium iodide) can block thyroidal iodide uptake and prevent the release of thyroid hormone, it should not be used without first initiating an antithyroid medication (e.g. methimazole).

    Reference: Shindo M. Surgery for hyperthyroidism. ORL J Otorhinolaryngol Relat Spec. 2008;70(5):298-304.

September 14th, 2022

A 32-year-old woman with no significant PMH is referred to your clinic for an incidental finding of high PTH (325 pg/mL). She does not have any kidney stones, fractured bones, or abdominal, cognitive, or psychiatric symptoms. She does not know if there is any family history of parathyroid cancer. Her calcium level is 10.3 mg/dl, and the remainder of her labs and imaging are all within normal limits. She states that she would prefer to have as little intervention as possible.

Which of the following management options is your next step and why?

A. Parathyroidectomy; her age is an indication for removal of her parathyroid
B. Observe and monitor with serial PTH and ultrasound-guided FNAs; she is clinically asymptomatic
C. Monitor on Vitamin D supplementation only with follow-up in 6 months; she is asymptomatic and would prefer to have minimal intervention
D. Parathyroidectomy; her calcium level is above the normal limit

  • Quiz Answer: Parathyroidectomy; her age is an indication for removal of her parathyroid)

    D is incorrect; normal serum calcium tends to fall between a range of about 8.5-10.5 mg/dl.

    References:

    Wilhelm SM, Wang TS, Ruan DT, et al. The American Association of Endocrine Surgeons Guidelines for Definitive Management of Primary Hyperparathyroidism. JAMA Surg. 2016;151(10):959–968. doi:10.1001/jamasurg.2016.2310 [Article Link]

    https://www.futuremedicine.com/doi/10.2217/ije-2017-0019#_i7

July 27th, 2022

An 18-year-old woman with a long history of severe deep ear pain for several months despite oral antibiotic treatment presents to the emergency department with worsening pain, headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Spinal fluid culture shows Streptococcus pneumoniae and she begins treatment with high-dose IV antibiotics. The next day, otolaryngology is consulted for a suspected left ear infection. Upon exam, significant purulent discharge is seen from the tympanic membrane along and a disconjugate gaze is noted. A CT scan is ordered and shows loss of air in the left mastoid and petrous tip but no intracranial abscess. She is scheduled for radical mastoidectomy that day for apparent petrous apicitis. Involvement of which of the following nerves is most likely the cause of her disconjugate gaze?

A. CN IV
B. CN III
C. CN VI
D. CN VIII

  • Quiz Answer: C (CN VI)

    Explanation: This patient with petrous apicitis is presenting with Gradenigo’s triad (suppurative otitis media, ipsilateral sixth (abducens) cranial nerve palsy and facial pain in the distribution of the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve). While involvement of other cranial nerves may occur, abducens palsy is most closely associated with the condition. When petrous apicitis is suspected, conventional imaging may show bone erosion and asymmetric clouding of the petrous tip. When the diagnosis of petrous apicitis is made, aggressive surgical drainage is indicated.

    Reference: Taklalsingh N, Falcone F, Velayudhan V. Gradenigo's Syndrome in a Patient with Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media, Petrous Apicitis, and Meningitis. Am J Case Rep. 2017;18:1039-1043. Published 2017 Sep 28. doi:10.12659/ajcr.904648

June 10th, 2022

A 45 year old man is referred to you for dyspnea. He has a history of recurrent sinusitis, otitis media, cough, and occasional hemoptysis. Laryngoscopy reveals significant nasal crusting and a septal perforation with subglottic stenosis. Review of an old chest X-ray reveals pulmonary nodules. Peripheral blood eosinophils are within the normal range. Which of the following lab findings, if abnormal, would most support the most likely diagnosis?

A. c-ANCA
B. p-ANCA
C. CD4/CD8 ratio
D. ANA

  • A (c-ANCA)

    Explanation: The most likely diagnosis is granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). c-ANCA is highly sensitive (95%) for systemic GPA, as seen in this patient. p-ANCA titers should be obtained in this patient as well to evaluate for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome). Lack of peripheral blood eosinophilia makes this diagnosis less likely. An elevated CD4/CD8 ratio is associated with sarcoidosis. Supraglottic swelling is more indicative of laryngeal sarcoidosis. ANA is useful in evaluation for SLE, systemic sclerosis, and Sjögren's syndrome.

    Reference: Garlapati P, Qurie A. Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; December 7, 2021.

May 27th, 2022

Identifying and dissecting the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) is essential for decreasing the risk of nerve injury during thyroidectomy procedures. Landmarks for the RLN would typically include all of the following except the:

A. Superior parathyroid gland
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. Tubercle of Zukerkandl
D. Berry’s ligament

March 25th, 2022

A 12-year-old girl presents to the ED with fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing and opening her mouth. She also notes change in her voice over the last day. Temperature is 100.8°F, but remaining vitals are stable. Physical exam shows cervical LAD, erythematous tonsils, and swelling of the right tonsillar pillar. The uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most appropriate step in management?

A. Tonsillectomy
B. I&D
C. I&D with IV ampicillin-sulbactam
D. IV dexamethasone